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Responses: 17
SFC Mark Merino
3
3
0
There is no such thing as Reverse racism. There is only racism. Racism isnt owned by any group of people nor does it exclude any other group of people.
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Maj John Bell
3
3
0
Edited >1 y ago
If you will, individual opinion does not establish fact for one or all or forever. Please find me a scholarly dictionary, that defines the words, all of the English language. There is actually a standard practice that determines when a definition has become common practice. Your definition of racism isn't there.
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PFC Jim Wheeler
PFC Jim Wheeler
>1 y
In fact, SSG Jessica Bautista, I'd even argue that for the lower socioeconomic classes in America, being a minority is a good thing because of a lot of the affirmative action policies that have been put in place to "level the playing field."

Those people have access to grants and scholarships that are not available to whites of similar socioeconomic background, are more easily accepted into schools, and have an easier time (although, still not as easy as someone from a higher socioeconomic class!) finding work. All because of affirmative action policies. This doesn't really have any effect on those at the higher levels of "privilege" in this nation, but it can negatively impact those people who are not minority and also do not have the family history to benefit from the "privilege" that we are trying to legislate away.
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SSG Jessica Bautista
SSG Jessica Bautista
>1 y
PFC Jim Wheeler - okay, I think you're still misunderstanding. This has nothing to do with indivual actions. Yes, there are outliers and extenuating circumstances, but it's not about that.

http://occupywallstreet.net/story/explaining-white-privilege-broke-white-person

This explains it a lot better than I can. If you want to reply, send me a message because this thread is too long and I'm lazy.
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Maj John Bell
Maj John Bell
>1 y
ssg-james-j-palmer-iv-aka-jp4 - The original discussion on the definition of "Racism" started between PFC Leuchen and myself under a different link/question. PFC Leuchen offered an opinion piece, not a lexicon of definitions, to claim that minorities cannot be racist. His response was a link to this link/question. SSG Bautista then entered the discourse and offered her link to the oxford dictionary. However, she did not link to the Oxford dictionary definition of "Racism" She linked to the definition of "Reverse Racism" while the two phrases are rooted in the same base word. "Racism" is a concept, where the definition hinges on the thought process. "Reverse racism" is a practice, where the definition hinges on the conditions. That change in what we were discussing was addressed with my link that starts with "go back to your link...".

I would completely agree that "Reverse Racism" does not exist as a systemic problem in America. One would have to result to infinitesimally small subsets of non-government America to try to find anecdotal evidence to support the argument for "Reverse Racism". Those subsets in my opinion are so small that they become less than insignificant to the discussion.

If the reason for your down vote is not addressed here, please explain why you gave me the down vote.
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Maj John Bell
Maj John Bell
>1 y
SSG James J. Palmer IV aka "JP4" - I'm not concerned about the points. I consider them the same as the points on the improv "whose line is it" show. But it did concern me to get a down vote from someone I consider intellectually honest, and not understand why.
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Cpl Jeff N.
2
2
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“Never argue with stupid people, they will drag you down to their level and then beat you with experience.” - Twain
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