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Posted >1 y ago
Responses: 3
If I never owned anyone nor did anyone in my family, and nobody alive today was a slave, why do I owe anyone money? Serious question.
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TSgt David L. Because there's a lot of folks sitting on their couch drawing welfare checks, and other Gov't handouts, that will continue to vote left for free money.
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Let's expand this a bit.
First rule - the only folks entitled to this must be directly descended from slave ancestors. In other words, arrivals after 1865 need not apply. Whatever a "full share" of the number is promulgated by percentage of ancestors, ie you have a grandfather who arrived from Ireland in 1935, minus 25%.
Second rule - Whatever you have received in government benefits (Obama Phones, food stamps, welfare, etc but not earned benefits like GI Bill or Social Security) is deducted from your share amount.
Third rule - the only people who pay for this are people whose ancestors were slave owners and benefitted economically from slavery. This too would be promulgated by percentage of ancestry.
With these principles in place, I think we can figure this out fairly.
How much money do you think would really move around in this scenario?
If you don't recognize satire, basically what I'm saying is that it impossible to calculate what a real number would look like, nor how legacies of slavery impact current Americans. In the event we actually tried, no amount of money would ever be enough. It would be the 9/11 victims fund (also a boondoggle) all over again, just many times bigger. Likewise, the vast majority of the US population arrived after 1865. How is it fair to them to pay for the sins of a country they adopted after the sins were committed?
Slavery is a dark stain in human and American history, and it is a horrible thing that it continues in capacities even today. I don't think money fixes it.
First rule - the only folks entitled to this must be directly descended from slave ancestors. In other words, arrivals after 1865 need not apply. Whatever a "full share" of the number is promulgated by percentage of ancestors, ie you have a grandfather who arrived from Ireland in 1935, minus 25%.
Second rule - Whatever you have received in government benefits (Obama Phones, food stamps, welfare, etc but not earned benefits like GI Bill or Social Security) is deducted from your share amount.
Third rule - the only people who pay for this are people whose ancestors were slave owners and benefitted economically from slavery. This too would be promulgated by percentage of ancestry.
With these principles in place, I think we can figure this out fairly.
How much money do you think would really move around in this scenario?
If you don't recognize satire, basically what I'm saying is that it impossible to calculate what a real number would look like, nor how legacies of slavery impact current Americans. In the event we actually tried, no amount of money would ever be enough. It would be the 9/11 victims fund (also a boondoggle) all over again, just many times bigger. Likewise, the vast majority of the US population arrived after 1865. How is it fair to them to pay for the sins of a country they adopted after the sins were committed?
Slavery is a dark stain in human and American history, and it is a horrible thing that it continues in capacities even today. I don't think money fixes it.
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