Posted on Sep 4, 2015
SGT Christopher Churilla
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Some supporters of Kim Davis (the Kentucky county clerk who refuses to issue marriage licenses to homosexual couples) are now claiming that the Supreme Court's ruling against the Defense of Marriage Act is toothless, that the justices exceeded their authority and that only the legislature has the power to revoke laws.

Do their claims have merit, or are they grasping at straws?
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Sgt Aaron Kennedy, MS
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The Constitution is anything but unambiguous. The document is four pages long. I'll say that again. It's four pages long. Can be read in about 30 minutes. Incredibly easy to understand.

Although the Legislature is the only Branch that has the ability to MAKE laws, each Branch has distinct ways in which laws may be "revoked."

Congress doesn't really "revoke" a law. They just make another law which supersedes the previous, effectively "revoking" it.

The Executive can can choose to use "enforcement discretion" putting a law so far down on priority that it may as well not be a law anymore. The current controlled status of Marijuana in Colorado, Washington, and Oregon is an example of this. The law is still there, but it may as well be "revoked."

Finally, the Supreme court, has the ability to declare that a law, or a specific subsection (more likely) of a law is Unconstitutional, making it void. It doesn't "revoke" the law, it just makes it unenforceable by the Executive.

So anyone saying the Supreme Court exceeded their authority, on this specific case, is frankly wrong. There is LOTS of case law leading up to this decision, starting with VA v Loving, which established marriage as a (Protected) Right in the US. The debate gets more complex when we talk States' Powers vs Equal Protections, however the States' Power amendment has been generally viewed as "toothless" due to a combination of the Commerce Clause, the Equal Protection Clause, and Article 4 of the Constitution (read it, as this actually settled the issue before getting into any of the other clauses).

edit: removed double word
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TSgt Senior Cyberwarfare Capabilities Instructor/Integrator
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Just to keep the discussion lively, where in the Constitution does it say SCOTUS has the ability/authority to declare a law (or portions thereof) unconstitutional?
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Sgt Aaron Kennedy, MS
Sgt Aaron Kennedy, MS
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TSgt (Join to see) - Art 3, Sect 1, Clause 1. (Judicial vesting clause)

"The judicial Power of the United States, shall be vested in one supreme Court, "

This is the clause that grants the SCOTUS the Power to "interpret" Law, and specifically compare it against the Constitution for "conflict."

Combine this with Art 6, Sect 2 (supremacy clause)

"This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, anything in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding."

And that is why the SCOTUS can declare something "unconstitutional."
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TSgt Senior Cyberwarfare Capabilities Instructor/Integrator
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Sgt Aaron Kennedy, MS - While I appreciate the effort, the concept of "Judicial Review," that which can determine the Constitutionality of a law, came about in the case of Marbury v. Madison under Chief Justice John Marshall.

To be vested with a power, means one has the authority to act. For example, traditional wedding ceremonies, religious and secular (JoP), both have the phrase "by the power vested in my by ..." to indicate that the state or G-d have granted the officiant sufficient power to perform the act, in this case a wedding.

Ref: http://law2.umkc.edu/faculty/projects/ftrials/conlaw/judicialrev.htm
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Sgt Aaron Kennedy, MS
Sgt Aaron Kennedy, MS
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TSgt (Join to see) - you specifically asked where in the Constitution it said, not what case law established the precident. The preciseness of the question determines the answer.
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PO1 William "Chip" Nagel
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Our Constitution set up the Supreme Court as the final Arbiter. The Supreme Court has Spoken. Marriage is a Right and as such can not be denied because of Sexual Orientation. Equal Protection Under the Law. Hell even Military Law has a "Fairness Doctrine/Fairness Clause.
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PO1 William "Chip" Nagel
PO1 William "Chip" Nagel
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If you want to mix Religion with Politics. Go to Iran, They believe in that. Join ISIS they believe in that. Me not so much. What is #8 from the Defining Characteristics of Fascism?
"8. Religion and Government are Intertwined - Governments in fascist nations tend to use the most common religion in the nation as a tool to manipulate public opinion. Religious rhetoric and terminology is common from government leaders, even when the major tenets of the religion are diametrically opposed to the government's policies or actions".
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LTC Instructor
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This popular notion, that only Congress can make law, really misses the point. Congress has "All legislative Powers," and a fair definition of "legislative power" is the power to make law. Strictly speaking, fine, that means only Congress can make law. But the Executive and Judicial branches make decisions that carry the force of law. Does "law" only mean "legislation"? Why does it matter if the non-legislative activities carry the force of law? What is the functional difference between "law" and "force of law" when the only branch qualified to apply the law is the Judicial branch?

Each Branch was designed to exercise an immense amount of power in a small amount of space; co-equal, separation of powers, checks and balances, etc. The Legislature can make law out of nothing . . . but only under an enumerated power (and the Necessary and Proper Clause). The Executive has some discretion in the manner of enforcement, has great power in foreign affairs, and can control all Executive agencies through fiat, subject to the threats of voter disapproval and impeachment. The Judiciary can void any legislative or executive promulgation, but only within a specific case or controversy brought before it (except in sua sponte circumstances); Courts are entirely reactionary.

I think people who dislike whichever administration happens to hold the Executive tend to favor legislative supremacy . . . until the tables turn and their side holds the Presidency. Furthermore, it is entirely inconsistent to denounce the Court for Obergefell/Windsor and wish the Court had invalidated the Affordable Care Act. It either has power to invalidate statutes or it does not. What is the "judicial power"? If it is merely the power to parrot Congress, then it is no power at all.

Then there is the problem of common law. It literally is "judge-made law." It is still reactionary, and cannot stand on unreasonable bases indefinitely. Congress still has a check on the common law.

Supporting the Constitution means supporting the constitutional order. That order was established to prevent any one branch from holding all of the power. Neither the Congress, the President, nor the Supreme Court are supreme. They must be on a level with each other.
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